Blog Post #6

 

2. "Power corrupts, and absolute power corrupts absolutely." - Lord Acton

To what extent would Shakespeare agree with this statement? Use the play and your own experience as your support.

Shakespeare's historical and social context play the largest role in order to answer the question accurately. Furthermore, the ties between Macbeth and England 1600s utilize many creative choices that Shakespeare made in order to display his view of power. The most important connection to make is that of King James I's influences on Shakespeare's portrayals of different characters. For example, Macbeth is not coronated onstage and King Duncan is not killed onstage. He does this for one main reason: the play is made with the knowledge that King James will be watching it and showing them may be considered treasonous. This accurately represents how Shakespeare views power. The more power that one has in silencing others, the more corrupt that person becomes.

This is accurately displayed throughout the play through Macbeth's arc. The more power that Macbeth gains, the more corrupt that he becomes. For example, it isn't long after Macbeth becomes the Thane of Cawdor before he kills Duncan. Additionally, Macbeth is king for a remarkably short period before saying, "Hey, it would be a great idea to kill Banquo and his son to stay in power" (Shakespeare, Act III, Scene I *slightly interpreted*). Through Macbeth's character, Shakespeare is making that claim that the level of power that one has is the level at which one can be corrupted. He is not saying that power always corrupts, as seen with Macbeth being honest and virtuous when he is the Thane of Glamis in the beginning. Furthermore, one can assume that King Duncan wasn't the worst king as gathered by his dialogue ("But signs of nobleness, like stars, shall shine on all deservers" Act I, Scene IV). King Duncan was quite fair in his judgement and valued all graces in those around him. By portraying the dichotomy of a fair king (Duncan) and a treacherous king (Macbeth), one can see how heavily corruption plays in the legacy and life of a king. Thus, the idea of absolute power and it's corresponding absolute corruption is emphasized.

An additional technique that Shakespeare utilizes that ensures his affirmation of the statement above was the use of pathetic fallacy. For example, in Act II Scene IV (right after Macbeth becomes king), the Old Man and Ross are talking about how nature is acting odd and ominous, reflecting the foulness that Macbeth committed in order to become King. The pathetic fallacy of nature reflecting Macbeth's sins reveal Shakespeare's belief that sins in order to gain power is condemned by nature. The acquisition of power is the inherent motivator that push people to corruption. 

To tie back to the historical context, King James I was known to be a bit less strict than Queen Elizabeth I on catholics in the start of his reign in England 1603. However, right when Macbeth was thought to have started to be performed, King James was cracking down on non-protestant Catholics and passed plenty of laws through Parliament demanding complete power over the Catholic church. This was shortly after the gunpowder plot which was loosely alluded to within Macbeth. Therefore, it is extremely difficult to reveal how Shakespeare truly viewed power and King James I as every connection is speculation. The play was created knowing that James I would watch it so nothing could be put in by Macbeth that would be seen as treasonous. Even homages were made in order to accommodate James I (i.e. mirror in apparition scene). The speculations that we make are not invalid, but it can never be completely certain. Good night, everyone.